Hi,I am Dr. Shanthi.E (General & Family Physician). I will be looking into your question and guiding you through the process. Please write your question below.
What does all of this below mean in layman's terms ? What is the short and long-term prognosis in these circumstances ?
MRI of the right foot without contrast
History; pain
Comparison; none
Technique; Utilizing High-field 3.0 T Phillips interest scanner MRI sequences were obtained in multiple orthogonal planes as needed no contrast given finding; there's a normal alignment of the osseous structures the phalanges are normal in appearance.
Findings; There is moderate arthritic change in the first metatarsal- phalangeal joint with a small to moderate joint effusion, narrowing of the joint, and a small subchondral cyst at the first metatarsal distal Physis. There is a irregularity of the articular surface. There is a mild spurring of the sessamoids. The other metatarsal-phalangeal joints are normal in appearance.
Over the lateral dorsal soft tissues, there is a focal collection with elevated T1 and T2 weighted signals with surrounding subcutaneous edema. This is compatible with a small hematoma. It is approximately 1×2 cm with the thickness of 3 mm.
There is normal signal of the intrinsic muscles of the foot. The soft tissues are normal in appearance. The plantar soft tissues are unremarkable and the plantar fascia is normal.
There is mild spurring of the hind foot but normal signal of marrow.
Impressions; 1. Moderate arthritis change of the first metatarsal-phalangeal joint. 2. Small fluid collection of the dorsum of the foot over the fourth and fifth metatarsals that extends from the level of the proximal Metaphysis to the mid diaphysis. This has elevated T1 and T2 signal and is compatible with a hematoma. A superimposed infection cannot be excluded.