Question: Hi, i took some steroids aged 14 for boosting height.
ive found the mechanism was possibly by increasing number of ghrh receptors which in turn increased gh etc.... and this resulted in my increased height.
However i have a concern: Do these new ghrh receptors (formed during steroid treatment) still exist today? Or have they been replaced?
Regards,
XXXX
Brief Answer:
Receptors get downregulated
Detailed Answer:
Hi
Thanks for posting your query on HealthcareMagic.
You are correct about stating that growth hormone releasing hormone stimulates the release of growth hormone from anterior pituitary. Ghrelin and growth hormone (GH) secretagogues potentiate GH-releasing hormone (GHRH)-induced cyclic adenosine 3',5'-monophosphate production in cells expressing transfected GHRH and GH secretagogue receptors. This means that there is an increased expression of GHRH receptors.
There is a general principle of receptors that whenever the excess hormone is not present the receptors also get down-regulated.
So if there is no stimulation to the receptors, these receptors tend to be down-regulated, but if the excess GHRH is present then these will have increased expression again.
They do not get replaced.
Hope it helps.
Dr Vaishalee
Hello,
Let's say there is increased expression, and increase in number of receptors.
After excess hormone is removed , as per principle down regulation should occur and receptor numbers return to normal.
My concern is in this 'pool' of receptors, there exists receptors formed from when excess hormone was present.
Or do GHRH receptors die off and get turned over?
Brief Answer:
Receptors have a fixed lifespan
Detailed Answer:
Hi again
All receptors have a fixed lifespan. They get manufactured and they die-off in some time. Now the life span of individual receptors have not been studied much.
If the stimulant (hormone) is in excess then the down-regulation of receptor may happen according to the need of the body.
If excess hormone is removed, then even upregulation may happen.
Hope you understood.
Dr Vaishalee
Thank you Dr Vaishalee
Ok. I'm concerned because the steroids I took has priming effect on pituitary somatrophs, and therefore possibly increasing number of GHRH receptors.
My concern is this newly formed receptor as a result of earlier steroids still are present today in the somatroph cells? Especially since we do not know lifespans?
Please can you advise, it would be valued and appreciated.
Best Regards
XXXX
Brief Answer:
They should not be present now
Detailed Answer:
Hi again
The newly formed receptors would have gotten lost within a periods of days or weeks of discontinuing treatment. The period is definitely not in years. You must have taken the steroids in your adolescent years and it has been long time since then. At present the number of active receptors would be only that many that are needed for your normal physiological function.
Nature is a big healer. I do not think you should worry about it after this much time. Though if you are experiencing any specific symptoms related to it I will be happy to discuss.
Hope it helps.
Dr Vaishalee
Hi and thanks for your valued answer
Does the above apply to somatroph cells also...because i understand this cell type inthe pituitary have very slow turnover rate? Or do receptors turnover in days/weeks regardless if theyre in a slow maturing cell?
Secondly, does your above advice also apply to ghrh receptors?
Thanks and wishing you all the best
Regards
XXXX
Brief Answer:
Yes it applies to all cells
Detailed Answer:
Hi again
The turnover of receptors on cells and that of cells themselves is different. The receptors are replaced or added according to the need for them to be present. While cell turnover is mostly guided by the different set of factors.
If the cells are present for long times, it does not mean that their receptors also stay.
Hope it helps
Dr Vaishalee
Thank you Dr Vaishalee for your valued advice.
I have a question regarding hair in pubic area. I am concerned that the first hair (of any kind) in this area was caused by the oxandrolone i took at 14.
I understand vellus hair is precursor to terminal hair.....but is there a precursor to vellus hair ie is hair structures present underneath the skin even before sprouting outward visible hair (vellus or otherwise) ??
Thanks and Best Regards.
Brief Answer:
Lanugo hair are the first hair produced
Detailed Answer:
Hi again
Lanugo hair are the first hair produced by the developing hair follicles. They are produced in the fetal stage (in uterus).
Then comes the vellus hair, then intermediate hair and last is the terminal hair. Vellus hair are mostly seen in post-natal period. These vellus hair are converted into terminal hair according to stimuli depending on the age, gender and body region. During puberty the first hair to convert are pubic hair. The age range for starting of pubic hair growth (stage 2) is between 10.7 to 14 years of age. This pubic hair growth continues and becomes adult type (stage 5) when the age is between 13.9 to 17 years.
Hope it helps.
Dr Vaishalee
Yes Thank you Dr Vaishalee for the helpful advice.
So pubic hair is converted from vellus hair.....but my question: can pubic hair appear in pubic area where there wasnt vellus hair present beforehand?
Are hair pores present in pubic area in children? Or does the whole structure (beneath the pubic area skin) get formed in puberty?
Hope you can clarify.
Brief Answer:
From vellus hair
Detailed Answer:
Hi again
The hair in the pubic area grow from both - new hair follicles and from conversion of vellus hair.
Hair pores (follicles) are present from childhood. They may be stimulated a later age to form hair. So the whole structure gets formed during puberty.
Just as other hormonal axes, there is a brain-hair follicle axis as well. Androgens have diverse effects on hair follicles in different parts of body. The effect ranges from being mostly non-existent (e.g on eyelashes), weak (e.g temporal and suboccipital scalp hair), moderate (e.g on extremity hair) and severe (on pubic, axillary, facial, chest, parietal scalp hair).
Androgens act on receptors on hair follicles to stimulate hair growth. So androgens cannot act if there no hair follicles present.
Hope it helps.
Dr Vaishalee
That has helped alot, thank you Dr Vaishalee.
Just a final clarification.
If i as an adult have pubic hair now, does that mean during childhood and before puberty began i must've had vellus hair in its place?
Secondly, does a hair pore (follicle) being present mean a hair fiber growth cyle is also present (lanugo, vellus or terminal) ? Or can a pore be present and not actually contain any hair fibers?
Thanks and wishing you all the best
Brief Answer:
Mostly yes to all your questions
Detailed Answer:
Hi again
Yes you would have had vellus hair in place of pubic hair in childhood.
Yes If hair follicle is present, hair fiber must be going through a cycle - lanugo, vellus, intermediate and terminal hair.
Yes sometimes a pore may be present but there may not be any hair for many reasons like hair fall and androgenetic alopecia.
Hope I answered your query. Wish you good health too.
Dr Vaishalee
Thank you Dr Vaishalee for all your valued advice.
I have one final query about growth hormone and its effects on organ growth
In adults, gh is present but in lower levels than in children. Can this lower levels still cause growth of organs?
Or it cannot because genetic potential of size of organ has been reached?
Hope you can give your valued advice
Thanks and Best Regards
Brief Answer:
It may affect organ growth if in excess
Detailed Answer:
Hi again
Growth hormone is needed to maintain the metabolism and soft tissue growth in the body. It is produced in the levels it is required. Within normal levels it does not cause excessive growth of the organs.
GH does cause excessive growth of organs if it is present in excess. This condition is called as acromegaly. The organs that may grow are liver and spleen. There are other clinical features also.
Hope it helps.
Dr Vaishalee
Thank you Dr Vaishalee for the best answers,
The thing is what's 'normal' varies when comparing child to adult. Just for example, a unit of 2 is normal in a child, but excess in an adult. Similarly a unit of 0.5 is normal in adult but too low in a child.
My question: Using above as an example, would a measurement of 0.5 still lead to growth, albeit little, when present in a growing child?
Thanks and wishing you all the best.
Brief Answer:
Yes it will lead to some growth
Detailed Answer:
Hi again
Growth hormone is assessed as part of provocative test. If the level of growth hormone is more than 15 - 20 mU/L then it is normal. If it falls below the level of 7 mU/L, giving growth hormone supplements is necessary. We also need to correlate the levels with the growth of the child. If the growth of the child is normal for age then supplements are not needed.
Hope it helps.
Dr Vaishalee
That's fantastic, So final clarification please,
Adult level of growth hormone (low) still leads to some growth when this same level is present in a child.
Why does it not lead to growth of organs in an adult? Is it because in adults the organs cells react differently to growth hormone?
Brief Answer:
Because it is released in moderate quantities
Detailed Answer:
Hi again
Organs are made of cells. These cells are in continuous phase of regeneration.
It is not that the cells start reacting differently to growth hormone.
The human physiology is such that the hormone release is tightly regulated. One thing is that growth hormone is released in spurts. Secondly its release is regulated tightly by feedback from the body. If the body requires its release, it will get released.
Now in children its release is needed. It is determined by many factors including genes. It depends on parents final stature. The child will eventually develop a stature somewhere in between his parents.
Hope it helps
Dr Vaishalee
Lets suppose all other growth promoting hormones are normal. Except growth hormone , which is low.
Would growth still occur (if required, for example certain organs still have some growth to do) ??
In other words, does low growth hormone still lead to growth (conditions permitting) , or does it have to cross a certain threshold level before it CAN lead to growth of organs?
Thanks for all your valued advice Dr Vaishalee.
Kind Regards
Brief Answer:
It does not need a threshold
Detailed Answer:
Hi again
Growth hormone does not need a threshold so that growth can happen. It just needs its receptors on cells to attach and then can produce a series of changes inside.
The growth will still occur to some extent even if it is stunted.
Dr Vaishalee
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How Do Steroids Help In Height Increase?
Brief Answer:
Receptors get downregulated
Detailed Answer:
Hi
Thanks for posting your query on HealthcareMagic.
You are correct about stating that growth hormone releasing hormone stimulates the release of growth hormone from anterior pituitary. Ghrelin and growth hormone (GH) secretagogues potentiate GH-releasing hormone (GHRH)-induced cyclic adenosine 3',5'-monophosphate production in cells expressing transfected GHRH and GH secretagogue receptors. This means that there is an increased expression of GHRH receptors.
There is a general principle of receptors that whenever the excess hormone is not present the receptors also get down-regulated.
So if there is no stimulation to the receptors, these receptors tend to be down-regulated, but if the excess GHRH is present then these will have increased expression again.
They do not get replaced.
Hope it helps.
Dr Vaishalee