Would Lorazepam And Celexa Be Detected Separately In A Drug Screen Test?

Question : Hello do both lorazepam and celexa show up in a drug test as the same or are each of these two drugs detectable and therefore traceaable

Specifically, if both lorazepam and celexa showed up in the drug testing but the person only took celexa, would there be anyway to prove that the lorazepam was a false positive even after the confirmatory (gas chromatography-mass spectrometry [GC-MS]) testing?

I'm sorry to asked for a bit more medical (scientific) data, information, answers, explanation, etc. as anyone could have given me that answer. Please understand my question. The category or classification for each of these two different drugs, meaning the chemical compounds bonding to create these distinct medicines have been designed to affect the body in similar effects, is that correct? Next, are these two similar as such that the manner in which the body breakdowns (metabolizes) each drug be considered to be one of the same or will a drug test determine that the person has indeed taken both of these two different drugs? Another way of saying this is this; would a doctor's review of the urine test results, either during the Initial (immunoassay) and confirmatory (gas chromatography-mass spectrometry [GC-MS]) testing be able to determine with 100% accuracy that there were in fact two separate drugs in a persons system or would there be reasonable doubt if the person only took just one of the two drugs? Specifically, if both lorazepam and celexa showed up in the drug testing but the person only took celexa, would there be anyway to prove that the lorazepam was a false positive even after the confirmatory (gas chromatography-mass spectrometry [GC-MS]) testing?